Paul’s Letter to the Romans Part 18

This entry is part 18 of 35 in the series Paul's Letter to the Romans

Continued from Part 17

Paul shows not only that there is no difference between the Jew
and the uncircumcised, but that the uncircumcised has the
advantage, if he pays attention, and that it is he that is really the
Jew; and so he says: “For he is not a Jew which is one outwardly”
(v. 28). So far as the flesh was concerned, a Jew was a Jew, no
matter how he lived; but he was not God’s Jew, not such a one as
God would recognize, unless he has a heart true to God. Outward
circumcision was necessary to a Jew but outward circumcision was
considered worthless; unless it was accompanied by
the circumcision of the heart.  

Part 18

“What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there
of circumcision?” (Romans 3:1) The Jew saw himself above all
other nations and they were proud of their position. Paul is trying to
focus them and really cause them to question their own importance.
Why was being a Jew advantageous? Circumcised?
“Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were
committed the oracles of God” (v. 2). This means that God put His
trust in the Jew. He trusted that they would be able to manage the
written law placed in their hands. They received many blessings
from God, but their greatest was receiving the oracles.
“For what if some did not believe? shall their unbelief make
the faith of God without effect? God forbid: yea, let God be true, but
every man a liar; as it is written, That thou mightest be justified in
thy sayings, and mightest overcome when thou art judged” (vs. 3-
4). God promised that he would bless the Jew. Although, they
mostly always were disobedient to Him, He still kept His end of the
deal and blessed them. If He refused to bless them, could we rely
on His promises? What about their lack of faith, should that
interfere with God’s Promises?
“But if our unrighteousness commend the righteousness of
God, what shall we say? Is God unrighteous who taketh
vengeance? (I speak as a man) God forbid: for then how shall God
judge the world?” (vs. 5-6) When mankind fell into sin, God brought
forth the gospel message which showed His righteousness. What
can be concluded from this? Is God unrighteous for punishing us?
Did our actions force God’s hand and cause Him to respond with a
great show of righteousness? May it not be so. If it were so,
however, how would God judge the world.

“For if the truth of God hath more abounded through my lie
unto his glory; why yet am I also judged as a sinner? And not
rather, (as we be slanderously reported, and as some affirm that we
say,) Let us do evil, that good may come? whose damnation is just”
(vs. 7-8). The line of thinking that has been brought forth shows a
person who is trying to justify himself. The justifier would have a
certain line of reasoning that would seem to be this twisted. He
might conclude, our actions eventually brought forth the gospel
message, because we forced God’s hand. Therefore, our actions
are ultimately good. In this case, why should I be condemned. With
the same line of thinking we could conclude, “Let us do evil, that
good may come”. If this was truth than the more sin we commit, the
better off we should be. To change their thoughts on the matter,
Paul condemns this in his next verse of scripture.

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